david starling
Well-known member
Then, there's that GREAT book title, "The Masks of God". (by J.C.). 
Human existence: the gender of God
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IleneK
Premium Member
Very good! Yes, why only one? And why any?Why only one?
IleneK
Premium Member
Read it long ago. Campbell was wonderful. But does not Campbell suggest that the various masks point to the numinosum...the one and the many?Then, there's that GREAT book title, "The Masks of God". (by J.C.).
david starling
Well-known member
Yes, and I personally attribute it to something I've had to spend many years discovering on my own. [NAE]* But of course, agreement is very gratifying.
*[No Agreement Expected].
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david starling
Well-known member
First and foremost, agreement would depend on whether one gives credence to the concept of astrological "Ages".
Secondly, it depends on whether one numbers the Signs 1 through 12, beginning with tropical Aries.
Thirdly, it depends on a belief in basic numerology.
Secondly, it depends on whether one numbers the Signs 1 through 12, beginning with tropical Aries.
Thirdly, it depends on a belief in basic numerology.
david starling
Well-known member
Illene, if you're still interested in an answer to your question about the one and the many, I'll explain on the basis of my previous post. Basically, I attribute it to the Age of Monotheism we're still living in.
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IleneK
Premium Member
David, you and I are on the same page in this matter. I think I am familar with the thesis about the astrological ages that you refer to. I don't really know if it is true, but to me it is cohesive and internally logical. In that, I find it appealing.
So no need to present the thesis to me. But you may wish to do so for those in the audience who are not familiar with it and might be interested to hear about it. It is pretty interesting.
So no need to present the thesis to me. But you may wish to do so for those in the audience who are not familiar with it and might be interested to hear about it. It is pretty interesting.
david starling
Well-known member
Yes, 12/12 deserves its own thread, so it's not scattered in so many others.
One can get a good sense of how powerful, yet how limited, the effect of the tropical Age actually is, by observing the power of Monotheism during this tropical Age of Capricorn. when it comes to the Ages, each Natal-chart is affected differently, so it's not lock-step. It's the aggregate effect and response to its Chart-influence that makes the Age what it is.
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jac
Well-known member
Just thought I'd make this available, in the midst of all the insanity.
For your consideration.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6mtQ1geeD_c
For your consideration.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6mtQ1geeD_c
waybread
Well-known member
Would a God who chooses to reveal Himself as a Father, also have other options at His disposal? If God is omnipotent, yes. According to Catholic interpretations the NT, God in the form of Jesus also has a divine Mother. In Proverbs, God has a supernatural female partner in Creation, Sophia (Wisdom.)
St. Mary was often portrayed wearing a blue or black mantel covered in stars, suggesting that her nature is celestial.
St. Mary was often portrayed wearing a blue or black mantel covered in stars, suggesting that her nature is celestial.
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david starling
Well-known member
Asherah was the wife of the Abrahamic God of Creation. She was edited out of the Old Testament, presumably for the purpose of patriarchal domination.
Where in the NT is it written that Jesus has a divine mother? Jesus the son of God has a divine father as did Adam, but is also the son of David through Mary his human mother.
Proverbs 8 uses Hebraic personification of wisdom, no Jew reading that thought there was another person there, but incidentally the second and third century church fathers thought she was the Word/pre-existent Jesus/angel/second god. But if wisdom is a person, who then is prudence? (Prov. 8:12)
Catholics are people of God in Babylon, so no comment on the idea that Mary the mother of the human messiah is divine or near divine.
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She is still in the Old Testament, being destroyed by king Josiah for the purposes of establishing monotheism and heterosexual marriages in place of idolatry and temple prostitution - 2 Kings 23:7.
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david starling
Well-known member
First Commandment: "I Am the Lord thy God. Thou shalt have no other gods before Me!"
Correct translation?
First Commandment: "I Am the Lord thy God. Thou shalt have no other gods before Me!"
Correct translation?
God has a most holy and blessed name, which is usually not transliterated out of reverence or spelt out of Rabbinic tradition. This name which occurs more than 6800 times in the Hebrew scriptures, is changed with Kyrios (which translates Adonai, but it can also refer to any lords in Greek) in the New Testament and Lord in most English translations.
From a few sources I've read, Ex. 20:2-3 should sound something like the following: ''I am Yehovah thy God, who had brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery. You shall have no other gods upon my face.''
(Where is the face of God? It is everywhere.)
Every Bible translation (being interpretation by very nature) is correct and incorrect to some degree, just some are more incorrect than others, usually by imbalance of literalism and sense-for-sense translation, but sometimes due to disputed grammar or lack of biblical knowledge and understanding in difficult passages (not in the first commandment or rather first word though).
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God is perfect in power and wisdom, so there is a reason he chose to refer to himself with singular masculine pronouns. Same as with the maternal imagery in Isaiah etc. To think otherwise, is to rebel against God.
We can speculate why this is so, knowing that Adam and Eve were both created in the image of God, but I don't think we should question it. Paul in 1 Cor. 11:3 says that God <who is always the Father> is the head of his beloved Anointed, who is the head of the man, who is the head of his wife. There is clearly subordination and servitude of each person to someone, except God, despite what trinitarians and feminists claim otherwise. And this is clear in all of Paul's letters - Ephesians 5:22-30, Colossians 3:18-19, 1 Timothy 2:9-15. So it seems that the abundance of masculine language may stress our subordinate role to God (for the prophets say we are either brides or whores), except in minor cases, as for example concerning his steadfast mercy, patience, love and compassion, which are qualities that we adore in exemplar women.
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david starling
Well-known member
What's the reason?
I edited my comment.