According to the link you provided, Lahiri is being recommended as the method Cayce most likely would have preferred. In the West, the Fagan-Bradley ayanamsa is most widely used. They're slightly less than a degree apart, which is close enough unless the ASC. is right at the cusp.
However, in 1957, twelve years after Edgar Cayce’s death, using modern observation and calculation, this zero date was updated and re-set to greater accuracy by the Indian Calendar Reform Committee. Zero Aries is now aligned (“fixed” in relation to the stars) exactly opposite the bright star Spica with 285 A.D. as the zero date (the date when the seasonal and sidereal zodiacs were exactly aligned). This zodiac is now used almost universally by sidereal astrologers in both east and west, and is referred to as the Lahiri zodiac. If Cayce were alive today, he would perhaps suggest that the Lahiri zodiac be used rather than the older and less correct Persian (Zeta Piscium) zodiac. These two sidereal zodiacs are four degrees or four days apart as the earth moves through the zodiac.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loka#...gions, that means plane or realm of existence.The scholar Deborah Soifer describes the development of the concept of lokas as follows:
The concept of a loka or lokas develops in the Vedic literature. Influenced by the special connotations that a word for space might have for a nomadic people, loka in the Veda did not simply mean place or world, but had a positive valuation: it was a place or position of religious or psychological interest with a special value of function of its own.
Hence, inherent in the 'loka' concept in the earliest literature was a double aspect; that is, coexistent with spatiality was a religious or soteriological meaning, which could exist independent of a spatial notion, an 'immaterial' significance. The most common cosmological conception of lokas in the Veda was that of the trailokya or triple world: three worlds consisting of earth, atmosphere or sky, and heaven, making up the universe.
The late Ry (Ryland) Redd:The recent astrological roots of the present situation are found back in the 1960s when Uranus and Pluto were conjunct. By 2008, Uranus had moved ahead to form a 90-degree angle (square) with Pluto, thus symbolizing the issues that had not yet been resolved from the ‘60s and were returning to be faced again. (See “The Coming Years, Astrologer’s Corner,” Jan/ Feb 2008, Venture Inward). Today, the Uranus/ Pluto aspect is still within orb, and the archetypal influences of these two planets continue to surround us.
The tropical Zodiac is about our materialistic existence. I'm focused on tropical, rather than sidereal Ages, as to when we'll be released from the necessity of reincarnation into the material realm due to the onset of the tropical Aquarian Age (beginning to happen now, and becoming fully effective in 2149).
This dovetails with the ending of the Kali Yuga, which currently has us trapped in the material realm (since around 3100 B.C.E.).
This Kingdom of Christ will be spiritual and will reign over the internal world of man, while externally being revealed in the righteousness, peace and joy of the Holy Spirit (Rom. 14:17). Christ Himself established this kingdom and explained in His parables how it will appear, who it will include and what power it will possess. His reign will not endure for a thousand years, but eternally (Lk. 1:33). Its inhabitants will include all faithful Christians from all the peoples of the world (Ps. 116:1-2), it will reign over all creation, and it will be a kingdom of righteousness (Dan. 7:13-14). It will be a kingdom made up of souls (Mt. 28:18) - souls that have already entered and lived within it in this present life.
"Olly olly oxen free!"
This is curious to me, as a philosophy. For example, all the dark souls (for lack of a better description), whose lives tend towards the darker side of life will also not require more lifetimes?
I wonder if this has anything to do with the christian orthodoxy of 1000 years Christ reigns - Will "they" the dark souls sleep ?
Confused!
But I DO NOT take this literally at all.....
I f you have a copy of "Edgar Cayce's Story of Jesus" bay Jeffrey Furst, please turn to pages 363 - 365 where you will find excerpts from reading #254.No. Not that I'm aware of anyway.....His "source" went back thousands of years however. Probably before most of the today's "ayanamsa" proponents which are named, even existed.'
I'd say use whichever "feels" correct to you . OR dismiss Cayce outright too. Either/or
Most Astrologers in the West use Tropical Astrology and have ever since one planet popped out of Cayce's mouth (readings)......His first Astrologer who did his chart likewise used tropical.
Cayce was not an Astrologer of course ...but was an interesting man who was interested in everything metaphysical it seems, therefore, words tumbled out of his mouth in deep trance states regarding many many philosophical concepts including Astrology.
I do think (however) Ry Redd did a chart for Cayce as an example. Mr. Redd was the person who "put it together) with help from the late B.V. Raman. (who also has an ayanamsa named for him Actually, come to think of it, had it not been for Raman, and Ry Redd going to a New York seminar on Vedic astrology to talk with him about this issue, we'd not even have had a Ry Redd Past Life Chart, because Raman told Redd "that sounds like (to him) what Mr. Cayce was describing here, as the "LOKA" used in Brahmin Indian Astrology. Hence, born the concept of Sidereal (being the key) was the missing ingredient, and so important to understand Cayce's Astrology readings which were many.
the key was given by Raman.
.and on page 352 you'll find one reading in which it was Yeshu'a/Jesus himself that spoke through Edgar.
Right. It was one of the Blumenthals, Edwin - aka St. Jude to whom Jesus spoke to his (long ago ) brother
Why Does Yoda Speak Backward in Star Wars?No official Star Wars source has ever answered the question of why Yoda speaks backward. One possible explanation is that his speech patterns are simply how his species talks. The lack of evidence makes it difficult to prove or disprove this theory.
The sentences aren't completely backwards. He doesn't say "Him to you take will I"; he says "Take you to him I will." What's more, not all his sentences are like this. Actually only about half are, depending on the movie; the rest are in normal English word order. What language does Yoda speak? The answer to this is surprisingly clear: It's English (duh).