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  #1  
Unread 12-19-2010, 01:02 PM
Oren Oren is offline
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does "end of house" still equal "in house"?

in my chart from astro.com, it says my uranus in sag is "end of house 12", and my pluto in scorpio is "end of house 10"...

does this mean they're not as strong than if they were just "in house 12" or "in house 10"? are the house traits somehow overlapping? ie. from 12 to 1, and from 10 to 11 respectively? or does being in the "end of house" still apply as if the planet were "in house"? how should I interpret my uranus and pluto locations?
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Unread 12-19-2010, 10:18 PM
Tanne Tanne is offline
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Re: does "end of house" still equal "in house"?

Hi

This would depend on what type of Astrology you are doing.

For instance, I am a Medieval Astrololger so the 5 degree applies. Therefore, if a planet is 5 degrees before the cusp of the next house then it is considered to be in that house.

The 1, 10, 7 and 4 are the strongest (100%) - in the order that I have listed them.
The 11, 5, 2 and 8 are the next strongest (50%) - in the order that I have listed them.
The 9, 3, 6, 12 are the weakest (25%) - in the order that I have listed them.

In Modern Astrology (and I may be wrong) I think that they are in the house that you find them.

ALSO, be aware that this may change depending on which house system that you use. You need to experiment and find out which one suits you best.
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  #3  
Unread 12-20-2010, 03:04 AM
dr. farr dr. farr is offline
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Re: does "end of house" still equal "in house"?

Ibn Ezra (12th century) reflected a predominant view (of that time) that a planet's influence flows into the next house if the planet is at 29 degrees (in today's sign numeration) but that it remains in the same sign if at 27 or 28 degrees.

There have been various views (as Tanne mentioned) from different authorities, ancient and modern. For me, although I accept and apply many Greco/Roman and traditionalist concepts and techniques, I (almost) always follow the Modernist outlook and consider a late-sign position to still be in the same sign.

As a note, in Jaimini (a form of Vedic astrology), late sign positions mean increased influence of that planet-the higher the degrees (in a sign) a planet has is counted as a very important indication of planetary energy-however (interesting from a historical point of view), at 29 degrees the planet (although still considered to be in the same sign-constellation actually) is reduced to 0 energy-wise; could this be a reflection of the ancient concept of a planet at 29 degrees giving all of its power over into the next sign??
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Unread 12-20-2010, 03:38 AM
eternalautumn
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Re: does "end of house" still equal "in house"?

Quote:
Ibn Ezra (12th century) reflected a predominant view (of that time) that a planet's influence flows into the next house if the planet is at 29 degrees (in today's sign numeration) but that it remains in the same sign if at 27 or 28 degrees.

There have been various views (as Tanne mentioned) from different authorities, ancient and modern. For me, although I accept and apply many Greco/Roman and traditionalist concepts and techniques, I (almost) always follow the Modernist outlook and consider a late-sign position to still be in the same sign.

As a note, in Jaimini (a form of Vedic astrology), late sign positions mean increased influence of that planet-the higher the degrees (in a sign) a planet has is counted as a very important indication of planetary energy-however (interesting from a historical point of view), at 29 degrees the planet (although still considered to be in the same sign-constellation actually) is reduced to 0 energy-wise; could this be a reflection of the ancient concept of a planet at 29 degrees giving all of its power over into the next sign??
But doctor, we are talking about houses here. What you have mentioned wouldn't apply unless one were using whole sign houses, correct? Either way, I don't believe any traditional source says that a planet at the end of a sign is interpreted as being in the next sign. As to your Ibn Ezra reference, that would only apply to whole sign houses, and I think the planet would remain in the sign it is in, retaining any essential dignity, and simply be interpreted as being in the next house, as far as life issues are read in a chart.

I have heard of the 5 degree rule for cusps, but I personally don't use it. If a planet is conjunct one of the angles, then I consider it conjunct that angle, no matter what house it is in. I don't give that much weight to the other house cusps, because they are so variable depending on what house system you use, whereas the angles stay the same across the board.
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Unread 12-20-2010, 09:57 AM
dr. farr dr. farr is offline
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Re: does "end of house" still equal "in house"?

Actually Ibn Ezra was in fact referring to signs (see "Beginning of Wisdom") Also, he (and almost all others of his time) used quadrant house systems (Alchabitius mostly) and had forgotten about whole signs.

But you are right: this thread is about end of house (vs that of sign) I myself do not follow the "5 degree rule", and I only very rarely follow Ibn Ezra et al about the 29th degree: for me, even at 29 degrees the planet is still in the same sign for delineative purposes unless some highly unusual circumstances are involved (like if it is 29>59 of the sign)
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  #6  
Unread 12-20-2010, 05:28 PM
eternalautumn
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Re: does "end of house" still equal "in house"?

Quote:
Actually Ibn Ezra was in fact referring to signs (see "Beginning of Wisdom") Also, he (and almost all others of his time) used quadrant house systems (Alchabitius mostly) and had forgotten about whole signs.
Well that's just silly.
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