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Unread 09-26-2019, 02:51 PM
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JUPITERASC JUPITERASC is offline
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Re: Table of essential dignities

Quote:
Originally Posted by ElenaJ View Post

Not sure if this is the correct forum, but
just want to ask for clarification
in reading the table of essential dignities.
Lets take the example of a planet at 6 degree 10 minutes of Aries.
According to the table Jupiter's terms are 0-6 degrees of Aries.
So, the question is this, in the case of the 6 degree 10 minute planet,
is it still under the Jupiter terms, or has it already entered the Venus column?
Does the 6 degrees of Jupiter's terms cover 6 degrees 59 minutes, or only 5 degrees 59?
Thank you.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Opal View Post

Hi ElenaJ
I believe it covers 0 - 5.59.
Technically if I could go back in time as an editor
.......it would be my first edit
......this is one of the most common easily confused problems,
caused by the way it is written.
Opal
Quote:
Originally Posted by Moondancing View Post

"The degree in the terms table is the degree that the bounds start."
'Using Dignities in Astrology' by Charles Obert MD
Quote:
Originally Posted by Opal View Post


Could you please clarify using 0.00. Thank you
Quote:
Originally Posted by BobZemco View Post

That would depend
on the system of reckoning: 0 to 29 or 1 to 30.

0 to 29 is a modern thing
used mostly to make it easier for software programs to calculate charts.

and dr. farr also highlights BobZemcos comments

Quote:
Originally Posted by dr. farr View Post

Right, it is through the entire degree.

One thing, though, is the translation of much of the older degree numbers
to the numeration we use in our charts today.

We use 0 through 29:59;
the old numeration was 1 through 30.

That means,

when translating a degree in an oldtime list, to our current sign numeration
we must subtract from the oldtime list;
ie, exatation of Moon at 3 Taurus in the oldtime lists
translates to the 2nd degree of Taurus being the exaltatio degree
of the Moon in our current sign numeration.

We can easily get misled about a degree and its meanings/connections
if we do not take this into account, when referencing the oldtime degree lists.
Quote:
Originally Posted by dr. farr View Post

Problem with the skyscript list is that the numbers (degrees) given
have NOT been corrected for our modern sign numeration!
Now, skyscript DOES append a note that the degrees given in their tables
must be taken back 1 degree to match modern sign numeration;
however I wonder why skyscript has not simply adjusted their tables
to the modern numeration??
(as I have done, here on AW in my table of elevated and pitted degrees)
Quote:
Originally Posted by serafin5 View Post

Thanks JupiterAsc for the info on degrees!
I'm not sure if you are familiar with http://www.skyscript.co.uk/deginf1.html#note ?
Deborah Houlding has a "Compiled and Annotated Table of Degree Influences"
which is soooo awesome!
This is a comprehensive list of every sign
and every degree of every sign
saying if it's dark or smokey or welled, etc.;
you should check it out.
Blessings to you!
Serafin5
HOWEVER the notation requires some explanation
Quote:
Originally Posted by dr. farr View Post

The skyscript degree list CAN BE used, IF you follow the note to the list
and take every degree listed back by 1
(to match our current charts)
I just question why they haven't simply corrected their list to our current sign numeration
(like I did here, with the elevated and pitted degree list)

BobZemco likewise highlights issues relevant to the notation

Quote:
Originally Posted by BobZemco View Post

That would depend on the system of reckoning:
0 to 29 or 1 to 30.
0 to 29 is a modern thing used mostly to make it easier for software programs to calculate charts
.

dr. farr - thanks for clarifying with more detail
Quote:
Originally Posted by tsmall View Post
....didn't the Arabs "invent" zero? Or did they co-opt it from India?
Wouldn't the reason have been in advances in mathematics?
QUOTE

A BRIEF HISTORY OF ZERO

http://www.mediatinker.com/blog/archives/008821.html

'...Once upon a time there was no zero. Of course people knew if they had nothing, but there was no mathematical notation for it. Zero was independently invented only three times.

The first recorded zero is attributed to the Babylonians in the 3rd century BC. A long period followed when no one else used a zero place holder. But then the Mayans, halfway around the world in Central America, independently invented zero in the fourth century CE....'

'...The final independent invention of zero in India was long debated by scholars, but seems to be set around the middle of the fifth century. It spread to Cambodia around the end of the 7th century. From India it moved into China and then to the Islamic countries. Zero finally reached western Europe in the 12th century.

Before you continue reading the history of zero, please be sure you understand these underlying concepts : Number vs Numeral; Invent vs Discover & Place Value Notation...'



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Aria Venue (11-15-2019), Moondancing (09-26-2019)