tsmall
Premium Member
In keeping with this recent discussion
http://www.astrologyweekly.com/forum/showthread.php?t=41166
And because I am really trying to understand the reasoning for using either the tropical or sidereal zodiac, I wanted to start a thread to debate the use of one or the other. I am speaking only of the zodiac itself, not of Western vs. Vedic astrology. This question first came up on another thread, in which it was proposed to me that I try looking at my natal chart in sidereal. When I did that, everything fell into place, and all the books I was ready to toss out because they were incorrect (based on my tropical chart) suddenly...worked.
My understanding of the tropical zodiac (and, please, anyone feel free to tell me if this is incorrect. I want to learn.
) is that it was first created by Ptolemy, and that he set the first sign (Aries, 0*) to match the spring equinox, as it was when he did it? Since then, precession has moved the equinox?
When Ptolemy did this, do you suppose he knew that astrologers would be studying his methods a couple of thousand years later? Do you think he was operating under the assumption that the world was flat, and that the heavens revolved around the earth? If it is the planets, modified by the signs, that influence us, why wouldn't we make sure that we were looking at the actual position of the planets?
I would like to hear any and all opinions, theories, reasons, etc. Please keep in mind that this is meant to be a debate.
http://www.astrologyweekly.com/forum/showthread.php?t=41166
And because I am really trying to understand the reasoning for using either the tropical or sidereal zodiac, I wanted to start a thread to debate the use of one or the other. I am speaking only of the zodiac itself, not of Western vs. Vedic astrology. This question first came up on another thread, in which it was proposed to me that I try looking at my natal chart in sidereal. When I did that, everything fell into place, and all the books I was ready to toss out because they were incorrect (based on my tropical chart) suddenly...worked.
My understanding of the tropical zodiac (and, please, anyone feel free to tell me if this is incorrect. I want to learn.

When Ptolemy did this, do you suppose he knew that astrologers would be studying his methods a couple of thousand years later? Do you think he was operating under the assumption that the world was flat, and that the heavens revolved around the earth? If it is the planets, modified by the signs, that influence us, why wouldn't we make sure that we were looking at the actual position of the planets?
I would like to hear any and all opinions, theories, reasons, etc. Please keep in mind that this is meant to be a debate.